Hi Guys, below are the 2 versions of my medical report and i
need to know if I'm eligible for a permanent Pes Status of
C2L9.
My situation currently is that I'm still on temporary C2L9
status, expiring end of this month.
Before - MRI Report 15th Dec
2008
Protocol
Sagittal TSE T1, TSE T2 fat sat.
Axial SE T1, TSE T2 fat sat (L4-S2).
Report
The lumbosacral segments are labeled by counting downward from
the cervical spine using cervico-thoraco-lumbar localizers. There
is a transitional lumbosacral segment with S1 lumbarization. All
the lumbar discs are normal shape and signal. There is slight L4/L5 spinal canal stenosis
due to mild posterior disc bulge. Otherwise, no significant
thecal sac indentation is detected. The spinal cord ends at mid L1
level. All the exiting nerve roots are preserved. No vertebral body
bone marrow signal change is seen.
After - MRI Report - 4th Apr
2012
MRI LUMBAR SPINE
Sagittal and Axial T1W and T2W sequences.
Report
The vertebrae are numbered from C2 and the last segmented
vertebra is S1. (lumbarised S1) The conus is normal terminating at
L1.
Normal spinal alignment. No evidence of parslysis. The vertebral
heights and marrow signal are normal. Te lumbar discs remain well
hydrated.
Perhaps minial disc bulge
at L5/S1 but without significant canal, lateral recess or
exit foraminal compromize.
Conclusion
Unremarkable MRI of the lumbar spine.
====================
Can somebody summarize and explain the report to me in layman
terms? Did my condition
1. improve for the better?
2. of mild slip disc recovered back to perfectly fit person (as
in disc went back to the orignal place)?
3. worsen as it change from L4/L5 to L5/S1.
4. allows me for a Permanent C2L9?
Btw: Reports are generated by public govt hospitals.
Thanks in advance.